NSS Written Test Question Paper Blueprint

Note: Answer all the questions in Question Paper itself.
Date: _______ FN/AN                         Unit No. ____________
Program Officer: ___________           Group Leader: _________
Village: ___________

1) Write any 5 objectives of NSS? 




2) State the motto of NSS and explain it.




3) Draw a rough sketch of NSS symbol and explain it.





4) The name of NSS newsletter in IIT Kharagpur is _________.

5) To which government ministry, NSS belong to?

6) Write any names of four program officers of NSS, IIT Kharagpur other than your program officer.



7)   “Shashwata Bharat” program was held in the campus on ___________.


8)  “Vivekdisha” program started in Balrampur and Talbagicha is:

a)    Conducting classes through multimedia

b)    Supplying books to the school libraries

c)    Spiritual program organized for the villagers

9) Blood donation camp was organised on ______________ at _______________.

10) Name the alumnus and a social entrepreneur, Magsaysay Award winner of 2011 who visited villages adopted by NSS, this January.



11) Name the neighbouring tribal village which got fire during winter vacation.



12) Name any three volunteers in Editorial Team of NSS Newsletter.



13) Who is the Genius behind Barefoot college as mentioned in NSS Newsletter?



14) Write the date, venue of the following occasions.

a)    National Youth Day program

b)    Republic Day

c)    Inter-School Competition

15) Write the major activities done by your group in this semester.



For answers, click any of these links. Link1,   Link2

Industrial Disaster Management - Quiz-8

1) The vehicle equipped with rescue and personal protective equipment to be used for rescue purposes is known as:
(a) Rescue vehicle
(b) Rescue trolley vehicle
(c) Rescue Tender
Answer: (a) or (c)


2) The Plan prepared for facilitating the prompt return to the normalcy and continuity of operation after a disaster is called:
(a) Rescue Plan
(b) Relief Plan
(c) Recovery Plan
Answer: (c)


3) Which of the following is not the part of Disaster Mitigation Planning?
(a) Emergency Communication
(b) Disaster warning system
(c) Risk and vulnerability analysis
(d) Insurance requirements
Answer: (a)


4) The information required for the preparation of a Disaster Plan is called:
(a) Strategic information
(b) Tactical Information
(c) Operational Information
(d) Statutory information
Answer: (a)


5) One of the mostly used ways to communicate risk of any hazardous material is:
(a) MSDS
(b) Pareto chart
(c) Emergency Information panel
Answer: (a)


6) Area where head count are usually taken after the evacuation of the affected area is known as:
(a) Shelter area
(b) Head-count area
(c) Mustering area
(d) Rescued area
Answer: (c)


7) Which of the following is an example of fixed hazard?
(a) Toxic Gas release
(b) Explosion
(c) Pool fire
Answer: (c)


8) The technique utilized in analyzing disaster response preparedness in industry is called:
(a) HAZOP
(b) ER-HAZOP
(c) What-if
(d) Disaster Mapping
Answer: (b)


9) The type of personal protection required when the greatest potential for exposure to hazards exists is:
(a) Level-A
(b) Level-B
(c) Level-C
(d) Level-D
Answer: (a)


10) The first responders who usually experience strong emotional feelings while handling emergencies is said to be under:
(a) Critical stress
(b) Critical Incident Stress
(c) Critical Incident Recall
Answer: (b)


11) The best way to audit the efficacy of the disaster preparedness is:
(a) Walk-through survey
(b) Table-top exercises
(c) Mock drills at field
Answer: (c)


12) Which of the following situation arises to the human body while responding to emergencies?
(a) Body rapidly produces Adrenaline
(b) Heart beat increases
(c) Temperature increases
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)

Industrial Disaster Management - Quiz-7

1) Under which regulation the local authority is responsible for preparation of an offsite Emergency plan?
(a) MSIHC Rules
(b) Hazardous Chemical handling Rules
(c) PMP Acts & Rules
Answer: (a)


2) Which of the following crisis groups are responsible for preparation of offsite response plan at local level?
(a) State Crisis Group
(b) Local Crisis Group
(c) District Crisis Group
Answer: (b)


3) The purpose of Hazard maps is to identify and display the location of:
(a) Hazard zones
(b) Risk zones
(c) Vulnerability zones
(d) Decontamination zones
Answer: (a)


4) Immediate danger area following a toxic gas leak is based upon the substance's:
(a) IDLH
(b) STEL
(c) TLV
(d) Ceiling value
Answer: (a)


5) The maximum injury causing distance following a toxic gas release will be dependent on the material's:
(a) IDLH
(b) STEL
(c) TLV
(d) Ceiling value
Answer: (b)


6) Evacuation maps are made based on concentration contours of a toxic release in:
(a) Downwind direction
(b) Cross-wind direction
(c) both the directions
Answer: (c)


7) In Uncertainty analysis, if the uncertainties are related to the chances of an incident happening, it is called
(a) Aleatory uncertainty
(b) Epistemic uncertainty
Answer: (a)


8) An area surrounding an incident site where public may be exposed to dangerous and life threatening concentrations of toxic materials is known as:
(a) Initial isolation zone
(b) Protective zone
(c) Decontamination zone
Answer: (a)


9) An emergency action code designed to help the fire fighters to know readily the actions to be taken in case of fire or spillage of a particular hazardous substance is called:
(a) HAZCHEM code
(b) UN Number
(c) CAS Number
Answer: (a)


10) How many Hazard Class Labels exist for different hazardous substances?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 7
(d) 5
Answer: (b)


11) The written emergency information carries by the driver of all vehicles carrying hazardous substances is known as:
(a) HAZCHEM
(b) TREMCARD
(c) Emergency Information pane
Answer: (b)


12) Emergency Information Panel contains:
(a) Class Lebel
(b) UN Number
(c) HAZCHEM code
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)

CAM NOTES

Download this notes in this link: Link-1  Direct Link  Link-2

Industrial Disaster Management - Quiz-6

1) Secondary fires are caused due to which of the following phenomenon?
(a) Flash back
(b) Burn-back
(c) Fire spread
(d) domino effect
Answer: (b)


2) What is the safe level of heat radiation (in Kw/m^2)for an average human being?
(a) 1.75
(b) 2.8
(c) 6.4
(d) 14.4
Answer: (a)


3) A Deep burn, characterized by destruction of all skin layers is termed as:
(a) 1st degree burn
(b) 2nd degree burn
(c) 3rd degree burn
Answer: (c)


4) A Probit equation used for calculation of effects due to:
(a) Flammability
(b) Toxicity
(c) both Flammability and toxicity
Answer: (c)


5) In Risk estimation, a F-N curve is referred to depict which of the following risks?
(a) Individual Risk
(b) Group Risk
(c) Process Risk
Answer: (b)

6) The uncontrolled sudden violent escape of well fluids during oil and gas exploitation activities is known as:
(a) Blow out
(b) Burn out
(c) explosion
(d) Blast out
Answer: (a)

7) Which of the following classifications of blowout causes minor level of pollution?
(a) Class I
(b) Class II
(c) Class IV
(d) Class V
Answer: (d)

8) A normally directional well drilled to establish a direct communication with the well under blow out, is known as:
(a) New well
(b) Rehabilitatory well
(c) Relief well
(d) killing well
Answer: (c)

9) Lethality (Pr) can be calculated from Probit equation by: 
(a) Pr = a + b ln(c/t)
(b) Pr = a + b ln(c.t)
(c) Pr = a + b ln(c+t)
(d) Pr = a + b ln(t/c)
Answer: (b)

Industrial Disaster Management - Quiz-5

1) The roles and responsibilities identified for disaster responses under Disaster Management Plan is known as:
(a) Incident Organogram
(b) Disaster Response Structure
(c) Incident Command System
Answer: (c)


2) The responsibility of press briefing during a disaster event normally rests on:
(a) Incident Controller
(b) Public relation Controller
(c) Transport Controller
(d) Security Controller
Answer: (b)


3) Whose responsibility normally it is to declare an Onsite Emergency in an industry?
(a) Incident Controller
(b) Site Main Controller
(c) Key person (Fire and safety)
Answer: (b)


4) Under which section of the Factories Act, 1948 (amended to 1987), an occupier of a factory has to formulate an Onsite Emergency Plan?
(a) 41-B(4)
(b) Section 13 - B(2)
(c) Section 46 - B(5)
Answer: (a)


5) Indian Coast Guard has capabilities for responding to which tier of Oil spill contingencies?
(a) Tier-I
(b) Tier-II
(c) Tier-III
Answer: (b)


6) Which of the following techniques are not used for Oil spill response?
(a) Use of booms and Skimming
(b) Use of dispersants
(c) Burning
(d) Bio-recovery
Answer: (b)


7) A hazardous chemical can be identified by which of the following numbers?
(a) ID Number
(b) NFPA Number
(c) UN Number
(d) Hazard index Number
Answer: (c)


8) Under various zones created around an incident site for effective response, which one normally used for command, control and support mobilization purposes?
(a) Cold zone
(b) Hot zones
(c) Warm zone
Answer: (a)


9) Within which zone "Emergency Control Center" can be situated?
(a) Hot zone
(b) Support zone
(c) Warm zone
Answer: (b)


10) 'THERP' study is related to:
(a) Risk Perception
(b) Safety Analysis
(c) Human error
(d) Work study
Answer: (c)


11) Which of the following is not a technological factor used for Vulnerability assessment?
(a) Process Safety
(b) Individual difference
(c) Communication failure
Answer: (b)


12) Which of the following is a human error in Disaster Management model?
(a) Error of Omission
(b) Typographical errors
(c) Error of Commision
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)

Industrial Disaster Management - Quiz-4

1) If 'Cash' is a hazard, theft is the consequence, then if 'electricity' is the hazard, what could be the consequence ?
(a) Damage
(b) Hearing loss
(c) loss of water
(d) shock
Answer: (d)


2) What is the purpose of hazard identification in Disaster preparedness?
(a) to identify the probable causes of disasters
(b) to identify the probable disaster scenarios
(c) to quatify the consequences
(d) to suggest mitigation measures
Answer: (b)


3) 'Pareto Analysis' is a:
(a) Risk quantification technique
(b) Risk analysis technique
(c) Risk mitigation technique
(d) Risk prioritization technique
Answer: (d)

4) 'HAZID' is done to carry out safety hazard identification, what is it known as which is used for identification of environmental issues?
(a) ENVID
(b) WBCSD
(c) ENVDI
(d) Sustainability
Answer: (a)

5) Atmospheric Stability Class D corresponds to which of the following weather conditions?
(a) Slightly Stable
(b) Stable
(c) Highly unstable
(d) Neutral
Answer: (d)

6) An estimated Risk of $2 \times 10^{-4}$ per year means:
(a) One chance in 100 years
(b) One chance in 10000 years
(c) Two chances in 10000 years
(d) Two chances in every 1000 years
Answer: (c)

7) When unacceptable risk is brought under the acceptability criteria through additional risk reduction measures, the identified risk is said to be within
(a) As low as Regularly Possible (ALARP) zone
(b) As low as Reasonably Practicable (ALARP) zone
(c) As low as Reasonably Possible (ALARP) zone
(d) As low as Rationally Probable (ALARP) zone
Answer: (b)

8) In Risk Analysis, Vulnerability Model represents:
(a) How many persons will be effected due to exposure
(b) How much area will be effected due to the event
(c) How long the effect will last in the community
(d) How probable that the community will be effected
Answer: (a)

9) Under damage criteria due to explosion pressure wave, 0.3 bar over pressure represents that:
(a) 10% houses will get damaged
(b) 90% houses will be seriously damaged
(c) Windows of houses will be smashed
(d) Glass of doors and windows will break
Answer: (b)

10) The catastrophic failure of a pressure vessel due to intense heating from a torch fire or a severe mechanical impact is commonly known as:
(a) UCVCE
(b) CE
(c) BLEVE
(d) Cascading effect
Answer: (c)

11) In Risk Assessment, 20/80 principle means:
(a) 80% of total risk comes from 20% of cases
(b) 20% of total risk originates from 80% of cases
Answer: (a)

12) Which one of the following has more damaging effect after a liquefied flammable gas release?
(a) Early Ignition
(b) Delayed Ignition
Answer: (b)

13) In Layer of Protection (LOP) Analysis, which of protection covers an 'onsite Emergency Plan'?
(a) 1st Layer
(b) 3rd Layer
(c) 5th Layer
(d) 4th Layer
Answer: (d)

14) Which of the following is a hazard quantification method?
(a) FMEA
(b) Fault-tree
(c) HAZOP
(d) What-if Analysis
Answer: (b)

15) Cause-Consequence Analysis (CCA) is a combination of:
(a) Fault-tree & Event tree Analyses
(b) Fault-tree & HAZOP Analyses
(c) MCA & Event tree Analyses
(d) MCA & HAZOP Analyses
Answer: (a)

Industrial Disaster Management - Quiz-3

1) Which of the following will be found on a Material Safety Data Sheet?
(a) Spill and leak procedures
(b) Health Hazard Information
(c) Special protection Information
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)


2) Section 2 of an MSDS will have information about
(a) Hazardous ingredirents
(b) Fire and Explosion data
(c) Reactivity data
(d) Manufacturers' data
Answer: (a)


3) In case of an emergency involving a chemical or product, an emergency telephone number can be found in which section of the MSDS? 
(a) Section 1
(b) Section 2
(c) Section 5
(d) Section 8
Answer: (a)

4) The yellow portion of a NFPA diamond represents:
(a) Health Hazard
(b) Flammability Hazard
(c) Reactivity Hazard
(d) Special Hazard Information
Answer: (b)


5) The ill-health effect caused by one-time, sudden, high exposures is often called:
(a) Chronic effect
(b) Acute effect
(c) Systematic effect
Answer: (b)

6) Monitoring the levels of exposure to toxic substances is medically done through analysis of body fluids e.g. blood, urine, expired air etc. The process is known as:
(a) Condition monitoring
(b) Biological conditioning
(c) Exposure monitoring
(d) Biological monitoring
Answer: (d)

7) The ratio of Amount of toxic chemical to the IDLH value of the chemical is called:
(a) Fire Load
(b) Toxic Load
(c) Pollution Load
(d) Toxicological Load
Answer: (b)

8) Which of the following steps of Toxic Risk Assessment exercise considers the possible routes of entry of chemicals into body and its reaction thereby?
(a) 1st step
(b) 2nd step
(c) 3rd step
(d) 4th step
Answer: (c)

9) About 2 ppm of Chlorine concentration in Air causes?
(a) Irritation of eyes and nose
(b) Irritation of throat
(c) Intense cough & fits
(d) Immediate death
Answer: (a)

GIFT for Children [NSS, Unit-7]

Basic Electronics Tutorial Question

Question:

Solution:

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q20

20) How does the sodium source, which you are using in your experiment work?

Ans: A sodium vapor lamp is a gas discharge lamp that uses sodium in an excited state to produce light.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q19

19) What do you understand by (a) fringes of equal thickness (b) fringes of equal inclination and (c) fringes of equal chromatic order?

Ans: 

• Fringes of equal thickness: fringes which are separated by equal distances are called fringes of equal thickness.
• Fringes of equal inclination: a pattern of alternating light and dark bands observed when a transparent layer of constant thickness (a plane-parallel plate) is illuminated with a diverging or converging beam of monochromatic light. Each fringe passes through those points of the layer on which the light rays are incident at the same angle φ—hence the term “fringes of equal inclination.”
• Fringes of equal chromatic order: fringes which have same chromatic properties are called fringes of equal chromatic order.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q18

18) Is it desirable to measure the radius of curvature of the given lens by a spherometer in the usual way?

Ans: No. Measuring the radius of curvature with a spherometer may lead to some errors. But radius of curvature from newton’s rings experiment is quite accurate.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q17

17) Why should a lens of large radius of curvature be used in this experiment?

Ans: Lens of large radius of curvature is used so that fringes can be clearly distinguished as diameter of ring increases with increase in radius of curvature.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q16

16) What would happen if a glass plate is replaced by a plane mirror?

Ans: If glass plate is replaced by a plane mirror, the transmitted rays before will be reflected now. Due to the superposition between reflected and transmitted (now reflected) rays, uniform illumination will result.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q15

15) On which factors does the diameter of a ring depend?

Ans: Diameter of a ring depends on the wavelength of light used, refractive index of the medium between lens and glass plate, order of the ring and radius of curvature of Planocovex lens.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q14

14) What is the difference between biprism fringes and Newton’s ring fringes?

Ans: Biprism produces straight fringe systems while Newton’s rings are circular fringe patterns. Two coherent sources are used in biprism setup, but only one source is used in newton’s rings. The distance between successive dark fringes is same in biprism fringes but it is not same in newton’s rings.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q13

13) What do you expect to see in the microscope if you use a white light source?

Ans: If a white light (polychromatic source) is used, for each wavelength a pattern will be formed. These diameters will depend on the wavelengths. Few rings are clear at centre and blurring occurs at distance away from centre due to overlapping of different patterns.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q12

12) What would happen to the ring if the space between lens and the plate is filled with a liquid of refractive index μ?

Ans: Diameter of rings will be smaller by factor √μ. Rings will be closer.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q11

11) Is it possible to determine the refractive index of the liquid by this experiment?

Ans: Yes. From suitable calculations, we can derive a formula for calculating the value of refractive index (μ) of the liquid from radii of rings from air film and from liquid film.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q10

10) What happens with the central spot when a liquid of refractive index μ greater than that of the lens and less than that of the glass plate is introduced between the lens and the glass plate?

Ans: Since the wavelength of light in a medium is reduced by a factor equal to its refractive index μ, the radius of each ring is reduced by a factor equal to square root of μ. Thus central spot’s radius decreases. And the central spot becomes bright

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q9

9) Instead of reflected rays, if you look at transmitted rays, what do you expect to observe?

Ans: Newton’s rings can also be formed in transmitted light, as shown in figure. In this case there is no phase change because the reflection is not considered. So the two rays are in phase and the central spot is bright. The conditions for the bright and dark rings in the transmitted system are opposite to those in reflected system. But the visibility of fringes is much higher in reflected system than in transmitted system.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q8

8) How is the central spot in your experiment, bright or dark? Why?

Ans: Central spot is dark. Although at centre, the thickness of air-film is zero, at the point of contact the two interfering rays are opposite in phase and produce zero intensity. This forms a dark fringe at centre.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q7

7) In place of lens, if a wedge shaped film formed by two glass plates is supplied to you, will you be able to observe Newton’s ring? Why?

Ans: Straight fringes will be formed. The glass plates may be arranged as shown. The two glass plates are inclined at a small angle (This can be achieved by simply separating them by a thin strand of wire at one end as shown). It can be shown that the reflected rays are coherent. And thus they form localized straight fringes are formed in the air film between the two glass plates.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q6

6) What will happen if a point source or an illuminated slit is used instead of the extended source?

Ans: Only a portion of fringe pattern will be observed.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q5

5) Why is an extended source used in this experiment?

Ans: To view the whole air film, an extended source is needed.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q4

4) Are all rings equispaced?

Ans: No. Rings get closer as the order increases (m increases) since the diameter does not increase in the same proportion.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q3

3) Why are the fringes circular?

Ans: Newton’s rings are loci of constant thickness of the air film and these loci being concentric circles, the fringes are circular.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q2

2) Where have the fringes formed?

Ans: Fringes are formed between the lens and the plate as the center.

NEWTON’S RINGS - Q1

1) In the Newton’s ring experiment, how does interference occur?
Ans: When a parallel beam of monochromatic light is incident normally on a combination of a Plano-convex lens L and a glass plate G, as shown in below Figure, a part of each incident ray is reflected from the lower surface of the lens, and a part, after refraction through the air film between the lens and the plate, is reflected back from the plate surface. These two reflected rays are coherent. Hence they will interfere and produce a system of alternate dark and bright rings with the point of contact between the lens and the plate as the center.