Friday, 19 December 2014

Cocubes - Employability Aptitude Test 2015 - (August 2014) at IIT Kharagpur

This is the Cocubes - Employability Aptitude Test 2015 - (August 2014) at IIT Kharagpur.

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Cocubes - Employability Aptitude Test 2015 ID Questions Question Image 1 In a PQR, the internal bisectors of the angles P, Q and R intersect the circumcircle of PQR at X, Y and Z respectively. If angle P measures 50 degrees, angle RZY measures 30 degrees, then angle QYZ will be:________________ A. 45 degrees B. 55 degrees C. 35 degrees D. 30 degrees 2 Side WX of rectangle of WXYZ is divided into four equal parts by points P, Q and R. The ratio of the area of PQY to the area of rectangle WXYZ is:________________ A. 1/7 B. 1/6 C. 1/8 D. 1/16 3 How many quadrilaterals can be formed by joining the vertices of an octagon?________________ A. 40 B. 50 C. 70 D. 20 4 Answer the questions 4 & 5 on the basis of the information given below. The following pie chart provides information about the marks obtained by six students A, B, C, D, E and F, in four different subjects P, Q, R and S. The marks obtained by each of the students in subject P is indexed to the maximum marks that can be obtained in subject P. This holds true for the other three subjects as well. For example, if the maximum marks that can be obtained in subject P is ' 40k ', then the marks obtained in subject P by student A is 15k, by student B is 20k and so on. This holds true for the marks obtained by the students in the other three subjects as well. The marks obtained by A in subject P is not less than that obtained by him in subject Q or subject R, but not more than that obtained by him in subject S. This holds true for the marks obtained by each of the other 5 students as well. If the marks obtained by A in subjects Q and R is the same, then the maximum marks that can be obtained in subject Q as a percentage of the maximum marks that can be obtained in subject R is: (click on image to zoom it)________________ A. 50/3 B. 250/3 C. 100/3 D. 20 5 Answer the questions 4 & 5 on the basis of the information given below. The following pie chart provides information about the marks obtained by six students A, B, C, D, E and F, in four different subjects P, Q, R and S. The marks obtained by each of the students in subject P is indexed to the maximum marks that can be obtained in subject P. This holds true for the other three subjects as well. For example, if the maximum marks that can be obtained in subject P is ' 40k ', then the marks obtained in subject P by student A is 15k, by student B is 20k and so on. This holds true for the marks obtained by the students in the other three subjects as well. The marks obtained by A in subject P is not less than that obtained by him in subject Q or subject R, but not more than that obtained by him in subject S. This holds true for the marks obtained by each of the other 5 students as well. A student is said to have passed a given subject, if and only if he has obtained at least 40% of the maximum marks that can be obtained in that subject. In how many of the subjects at least three of the students have passed? (click on image to zoom it)________________ A. 2 B. 0 C. 1 D. 3 6 A 20 litre mixture of milk and water contains milk and water in the ratio of 3 : 2. 10 litres of the mixture is replaced with pure milk in the vessel and then this operation is repeated once more. At the end of the two replacements, what would be the ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture?________________ A. 17 : 3 B. 1 : 9 C. 9 : 1 D. 5 : 3 7 Pipe X fills a tank of 700 litres capacity at a rate of 40 litres a minute. Another pipe Y, fills the same tank at a rate of 30 litres a minute. A pipe Z, at the bottom of the tank, drains the tank at a rate of 20 litres a minute. If pipe X is kept open for a minute and then closed and then pipe Y is kept open for a minute and then closed and then pipe Z is kept open for a minute and then closed and further, the cycle is being repeated till the tank overflows. How long will it take for the empty tank to overflow?________________ A. 20 min 10 sec B. 40 min 20 sec C. 22 min 15 sec D. 40 min 50 sec 8 A tempo, while travelling at 70 kmph, uses 30% more petrol than it uses while travelling at 50 kmph for travelling a certain distance. Using one litre of petrol, it can travel 19.5 km at 50 kmph. How far can the tempo travel on 10 litres of petrol at a speed of 70 kmph?________________ A. 130 km B. 140 km C. 150 km D. 160 km 9 If three times the larger of two numbers is divided by the smaller number, we get 4 as the quotient and 3 as the remainder. Also, if seven times the smaller number is divided by the larger one, we get 5 as quotient and 1 as the remainder. Find the difference between these numbers.________________ A. 7 B. 18 C. 25 D. 14 10 Read the information given below and answer the question: After the Ranji trophy series, 5 players were asked to stand in the increasing order of runs scored by them. Rajesh was fourth while Mahesh was first. When they were asked to stand in decreasing order of number of wickets taken by them, Inder replaced Rajesh while Rajesh replaced Mohan. Ravinder's position remained unchanged. It is known that Inder scored more runs than Ravinder. If Mohan's rank was first in one of the rankings and fifth in the other, who scored the highest runs in the series?________________ A. Inder B. Mohan C. Ravinder D. Cannot be determined 11 A train consists of 12 bogies, each bogie is 15 meters long. The train crosses a telegraph pole in 18 seconds. Due to some problem, two bogies were detached. How much time train would take now to cross a telegraph post?________________ A. 18 sec B. 12 sec C. 15 sec D. 20 sec 12 Two lumps of a mixture of gold, silver and copper together weigh 20 kg. One lump contains 75% gold and 31.25 g silver per kilogram. Another lump contains 85% gold and 30 g silver per kilogram. The total quantity of silver in two lumps is 617.5 gm. If two lumps are melted to form one, the percentage of gold in it will be:________________ A. 75 B. 87 C. 15.6 D. 78 13 If (x + 2) exactly divides x3 6x2 11x 6k  , find k.________________ A. 2 B. 1 C. 0 D. 4 14 A group of 10 army persons is to be sent on a mission. The group is to be selected from six men commanders and ten lieutenants comprising of 5 men lieutenants and 5 women lieutenants. In how many ways can this be done, if the group must have at least four commanders and at least four lieutenants with at least 2 men lieutenants and 2 women lieutenants?________________ A. 4300 B. 3700 C. 5100 D. 5000 15 Answer the following questions 15 & 16 on the basis of the information given below. Following things are true about the flats (100 in total) in the Royal Society: 1. There are 93 flats which have Wi-Fi connection. 2. There are 62 flats which have landline telephone. 3. There are 85 flats which have AC. What is the minimum number of flats that have all the three facilities?________________ A. 39 B. 40 C. 41 D. 42 16 Answer the following questions 15 & 16 on the basis of the information given below. Following things are true about the flats (100 in total) in the Royal Society: 1. There are 93 flats which have Wi-Fi connection. 2. There are 62 flats which have landline telephone. 3. There are 85 flats which have AC. What is the maximum number of flats having one or two facilities?________________ A. 60 B. 64 C. 63 D. 69 17 The denominator of a fraction is 3 more than the numerator. If 4 is added to both the numerator and the denominator, the fraction becomes 4/5. The fraction is:________________ A. 5/8 B. 10/13 C. 7/10 D. 8/11 18 Gautam sat for his NTSCE exam where every correct answer was awarded 3 marks and 1 mark was deducted for every wrong answer. His score was 40. Had he been awarded 4 marks for every correct answer and 2 marks would have been deducted for every wrong answer, his score would have been 50. How many questions were there in the paper if he attempted all the questions in the same manner in both the scenarios?________________ A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50 19 A and B are participating in a swimming race of 1000 m. Both of them start simultaneously at one end of a swimming pool whose length is 50 m. A beats B in the race and meets him 17 times during the course. If A's speed is 5 m/s then the speed of B could be (rounded off to nearest whole number):________________ A. 1 m/s B. 3 m/s C. 4 m/s D. 6 m/s 20 How many numbers of five digits can be formed with digits 1,3,5,7 & 9 with no digit being repeated in the same number?________________ A. 55 B. 120 C. 125 D. 15 21 In the question given below, a statement followed by some arguments is given. You have to decide which of the given arguments is/are a strong argument and which is/are weak. Mark the answer accordingly. Statement: Should the consumption of chicken be banned in India? Arguments: I. Yes, this is the only way to reduce the risk of exposing people to Swine Flu. II. No, each individual should have right to choose what he wants. III. No, there is no confirmed evidence that every cuisine made out of chicken can have adverse effect on human body. IV. Yes, it is banned in many other countries also.________________ A. Only I and II are strong B. All are strong C. Only III is strong D. Only I is strong 22 In the question given below, a statement followed by some arguments is given. You have to decide which of the given arguments is/are a strong argument and which is/are weak. Mark the answer accordingly. Statement: Should military training be made compulsory in our country like other countries? Arguments: I. Yes, every citizen has duty to protect his country. II. No, it is against the policy of nonviolence.________________ A. Both first and second arguments are strong. B. Neither first nor second argument is strong. C. Only second argument is strong. D. Either first or second argument is strong. 23 In the question given below, a statement followed by some arguments is given. You have to decide which of the given arguments is/are a strong argument and which is/are weak. Mark the answer accordingly. Statement: Should jobs be delinked with academic degrees and diplomas? Arguments: I. Yes, a very large number of candidates will apply so that the competition will be tough and the candidates will prepare more. II. No, importance of higher education will be diminished.________________ A. Only first argument is strong. B. Neither first nor second argument is strong. C. Only second argument is strong. D. Both first and second arguments are strong. 24 In the question given below, a statement followed by some arguments is given. You have to decide which of the given arguments is/are a strong argument and which is/are weak. Mark the answer accordingly. Statement: Should those who receive dowry be encouraged? Arguments: I. Yes, due to this, the number of those who receive dowry will decrease. II. No, due to this the number of those who receive dowry will increase.________________ A. Both first and second arguments are strong. B. Only first argument is strong. C. Only second argument is strong. D. Neither first nor second argument is strong. 25 What will be the value of i at the end of the flowchart if the input number is 7? ________________ A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 26 If the decision "Is i > or = input number?" is replaced by "Is i = input number" then will the output of the flowchart change? ________________ A. No B. Yes C. Depends on the input number D. Can't Say 27 If the decision "Is i > or = input number?" is replaced by "Is i > input number" then will the output of the flowchart change? ________________ A. No B. Yes C. Depends on the input number D. Can't Say 28 In the following question, a square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. Choose the answer which shows how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line as shown by the arrow. Transparent Sheet: Response Sheet: ________________ A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D. (4) 29 For the following question, choose the answer that best completes the comparison. 80 : 730 :: ? : 344________________ A. 48 B. 70 C. 40 D. 52 30 In the following question, three statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: All pencils are pens. Some pens are sketch-pens. All sketch-pens are papers. Conclusions: I. Some papers are pencils. II. Some papers are pens. III. Some sketch-pens are pencils. IV. No paper is pencil.________________ A. None follows B. Either I or III follow C. Either I or II and IV follow D. All follow 31 In the following question, three statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: All singers are actors. No doctor is singer. Some dancers are doctors. Conclusions: I. Some dancers are singers. II. Some actors are dancers. III. All doctors are dancers. IV. Some actors are doctors.________________ A. Only I and III follow B. All follow C. Only I and II follow D. None follows 32 Refer to the data given below and answer the questions 32 & 33 that follow. A 9-digit code is to be formed using 6 distinct numbers and 3 vowels. 1) Digit at the first place is square of prime number which is in the fourth place. 2) Digit at fifth, eighth, second and first places are consecutive numbers in the ascending order. 3) All odd digits except 1 are present in the code. 4) Vowels are placed at positions of the code which are first three multiples of three. The digit at the fifth place is:________________ A. 7 B. 6 C. 3 D. 5 33 Refer to the data given below and answer the questions 32 & 33 that follow. A 9-digit code is to be formed using 6 distinct numbers and 3 vowels. 1) Digit at the first place is square of prime number which is in the fourth place. 2) Digit at fifth, eighth, second and first places are consecutive numbers in the ascending order. 3) All odd digits except 1 are present in the code. 4) Vowels are placed at positions of the code which are first three multiples of three. The digit at the first place corresponds to the place which a vowel occupies in the alphabetical order; the vowel being placed at the extreme position in the code. Find the last 3 entities of the code.________________ A. 79a B. 67e C. 97i D. 57i 34 Refer to the data below and answer the questions 34 & 35 that follow. The 5 participants in a car race are Daric, Garry, Danny, Elviana and Erica. The starting point of the race is at 'A', the participants need to move 10 kms due East to reach point 'B', then drive for 8 kms due South east to reach point 'C'. Then make a clockwise semi-circular turn of 7 kms to reach point 'D' which is to the South of point 'C'. Then a 12 kms straight drive due West to reach the finishing point 'E'. Also consider the following information about speed of the candidates. * Daric is twice as fast as Danny. * Erica and Danny drive at same speeds. If Erica has covered 6 kms, in which direction is Daric headed?________________ A. East B. West C. South east D. Cannot be determined 35 Refer to the data below and answer the questions 34 & 35 that follow. The 5 participants in a car race are Daric, Garry, Danny, Elviana and Erica. The starting point of the race is at 'A', the participants need to move 10 kms due East to reach point 'B', then drive for 8 kms due South east to reach point 'C'. Then make a clockwise semi-circular turn of 7 kms to reach point 'D' which is to the South of point 'C'. Then a 12 kms straight drive due West to reach the finishing point 'E'. Also consider the following information about speed of the candidates. * Daric is twice as fast as Danny. * Erica and Danny drive at same speeds. If Garry is 3 kms behind Daric, which direction does he need to take next? (Use data from previous question)________________ A. West B. East C. South east D. South 36 Answer the following question based on the statements given below. Does he go to office every day? Statements: I. He is never defamed for absence. II. He is never at his home during office hours.________________ A. Only 1 of the statements is sufficient to answer the given question but the other statement is not. B. Both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question although neither of the statements alone suffices. C. Each statement, individually, is sufficient to answer the question. D. Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data to the problem are needed. 37 Answer the following question based on the statements given below. Are all footballs basketballs? Statements: I. All animals are footballs II. All basketballs are animals________________ A. Only 1 of the statements is sufficient to answer the given question but the other statement is not. B. Both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question although neither of the statements alone suffices. C. Each statement, individually, is sufficient to answer the question. D. Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data to the problem are needed. 38 Question: How is 'FATE' written in the code language? Statements: I. FEAR is written as PQRS in that code. II. TREAT is written as LMQRS in that code. III. TEAR is written as LQRS in that code.________________ A. Statement I, II and III are required to answer the question asked. B. Only I and either II or III are required to answer the question asked. C. Only I and II are required to answer the question asked. D. None of these statements is sufficient to answer the question asked. 39 Question: How many daughters does F have? Statements: I. P and S are sisters of M. II. R is brother of J and S. III. R and M are sons of F.________________ A. Only statement II and III are required to answer the question asked. B. Statement I, II and III are required to answer the question asked. C. Only statement II is required to answer the question asked. D. None of these statements is sufficient to answer the question asked. 40 Three images from the following figure follow a similar pattern and one does not. Mark your answer as that image. ________________ A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D. (4) 41 Consider the following given four choices and identify the odd one out.________________ A. Rubric B. Stricture C. Label D. Caption 42 Choose the most logical order of sentences from the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 1. The credit rating agencies use legions of high trained analyst with access to top management. 2. Their meticulous reports giving ratings for corporate bonds are designed to give an accurate picture of the bonds riskiness and ultimately the probability of default. 3. Lately, the credit-rating agencies have struggled to keep up. 4. It seems a bond rating tells you even less about the price that investors are willing to pay. 5. In 1999 two-third of the debt rated triple B by standard and poor was priced within 20 basis points of the average bond with the same rating.________________ A. 45123 B. 34215 C. 12345 D. 23415 43 In the following question, four similar sentences are given, of which only one is grammatically correct, stylistically elegant and semantically consistent. Identify that sentence.________________ A. His initial impression was that work was light and the compensation beautiful, but soon he realized that the pay was not commensurate with his role and responsibilities. B. His initial impression was that work was lighter and the compensation handsome, but soon he realized that the pay was not commensurate with his role and responsibilities. C. His initial impression was that work was light and the compensation handsome, but soon he realized that the pay was not commensurate with his role and responsibilities. D. His initial impression was that work was light and the compensation handsome, soon he realized that the pay was not commensurate with his role and responsibilities. 44 Fill in the blank(s) with the most suitable option. During the ________election week in May last year, _______politicians were busy dodging the issue of incomplete work they had done in the previous five years while promising a lot to the poor.________________ A. final, terse B. tumultuous, unscrupulous C. pitched, ineffective D. showy, unseasonable 45 Fill in the blank(s) with the most suitable option. My mother always detests _______ with shady children.________________ A. for dealing B. dealing C. to deal D. deals 46 Two of the four words given below have the same meaning, spot them. 1.CHOLERIC 2.INEPT 3.IRASCIBLE 4.INDENTATION________________ A. 1, 4 B. 1, 3 C. 3, 4 D. 1, 2 47 Choose the option which gives the closest meaning to the idiom. Baker's Dozen.________________ A. 12 items B. 13 items C. 14 items D. 15 items 48 Choose the most logical order of sentences among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 1. Despite posting healthy profits, Volkswagen shares trade at a discount to peers due to bad reputation among investors. 2. A disastrous capital hike, an expensive foray into truck business and uncertainty about the reason for a share buyback have in recent years left investors bewildered. 3. The main problem with Volkswagen is the past. 4. Many investors have been disappointed and frightened away. 5. Volkswagen shares trade at about nine times the 2002 estimated earnings compared to BMW's 19 and are the second cheapest in the sector.________________ A. 52134 B. 13425 C. 32451 D. 13524 49 Identify the pair in which words are related to each other in the same way as the two CAPITALIZED words are, below. HIATUS : GAP________________ A. Imbecile : Smart B. Greenfield : Project C. Zenith : Pinnacle D. Nuptial : Cornucopia 50 Read the passage given below and answer the questions 50-52: Eco-efficiency (measures to minimize environmental impact through the reduction or elimination of waste from production processes) has become a goal for companies worldwide, with many realizing significant cost savings from such innovation. Peter Senge and Goran Carlstadt see this development as laudable but suggest that simply adopting eco-efficiency innovations could actually worsen environmental stresses in the future, such innovations reduce production waste but do not alter the number of products manufactured nor the waste companies invest in eco-efficiency improvements in order to increase profits and growth. Moreover, there is no guarantee the increased economic growth from eco-efficiency will come in similarly ecoefficient ways, since in today's global markets, greater profits may be turned into investment capital that could easily be reinvested in old style eco-inefficient industries. Even a vastly more eco-efficient industrial system could, were it to grow much larger, generate more total waste and destroy more habitat and species than would a smaller, less eco-efficient economy. Senge and Carlstadt argue that to preserve the global environment and sustain economic growth, businesses must develop a new systematic approach that reduces total material use and total accumulated waste. Focusing exclusively on eco-efficiency, (which offers a compelling business case according to established thinking) may distract companies from pursuing radically different products and business models. The primary purpose of the passage is to:________________ A. Explain why a particular business strategy has been less successful than was once anticipated. B. Propose an alternative to a particular business strategy that has inadvertently caused ecological damage. C. Present a concern about the possible consequences of pursuing a particular business strategy. D. Make a case for applying a particular business strategy on a large scale than is currently practiced. 51 Read the passage given below and answer the questions 50-52: Eco-efficiency (measures to minimize environmental impact through the reduction or elimination of waste from production processes) has become a goal for companies worldwide, with many realizing significant cost savings from such innovation. Peter Senge and Goran Carlstadt see this development as laudable but suggest that simply adopting eco-efficiency innovations could actually worsen environmental stresses in the future, such innovations reduce production waste but do not alter the number of products manufactured nor the waste companies invest in eco-efficiency improvements in order to increase profits and growth. Moreover, there is no guarantee the increased economic growth from eco-efficiency will come in similarly ecoefficient ways, since in today's global markets, greater profits may be turned into investment capital that could easily be reinvested in old style eco-inefficient industries. Even a vastly more eco-efficient industrial system could, were it to grow much larger, generate more total waste and destroy more habitat and species than would a smaller, less eco-efficient economy. Senge and Carlstadt argue that to preserve the global environment and sustain economic growth, businesses must develop a new systematic approach that reduces total material use and total accumulated waste. Focusing exclusively on eco-efficiency, (which offers a compelling business case according to established thinking) may distract companies from pursuing radically different products and business models. The passage mentions which of the following as a possible consequence of companies' realization of greater profits through ecoefficiency?________________ A. The companies may be able to sell a greater number of products by lowering prices. B. The companies may be better be reinvested to increase economic growth through eco-efficiency. C. The profits may be used as investment capital for industries that are not eco-efficient. D. The profits may encourage companies to make further innovations in reducing production waste. 52 Read the passage given below and answer the questions 50-52: Eco-efficiency (measures to minimize environmental impact through the reduction or elimination of waste from production processes) has become a goal for companies worldwide, with many realizing significant cost savings from such innovation. Peter Senge and Goran Carlstadt see this development as laudable but suggest that simply adopting eco-efficiency innovations could actually worsen environmental stresses in the future, such innovations reduce production waste but do not alter the number of products manufactured nor the waste companies invest in eco-efficiency improvements in order to increase profits and growth. Moreover, there is no guarantee the increased economic growth from eco-efficiency will come in similarly ecoefficient ways, since in today's global markets, greater profits may be turned into investment capital that could easily be reinvested in old style eco-inefficient industries. Even a vastly more eco-efficient industrial system could, were it to grow much larger, generate more total waste and destroy more habitat and species than would a smaller, less eco-efficient economy. Senge and Carlstadt argue that to preserve the global environment and sustain economic growth, businesses must develop a new systematic approach that reduces total material use and total accumulated waste. Focusing exclusively on eco-efficiency, (which offers a compelling business case according to established thinking) may distract companies from pursuing radically different products and business models. The passage implies that which of the following is a possible consequence of a company's adoption of innovations that increase its ecoefficiency?________________ A. Company profits resulting from such innovations may be reinvested in that company with no guarantee that the company will continue to make further improvements in eco-efficiency. B. Company growth fostered by cost savings from such innovations may allow that company to manufacture a greater number of products that will be used and discarded, thus worsening environmental stress. C. A company that fails to realize significant cost savings from such innovations may have little incentive to continue to minimize the environment impact of its production processes. D. A company that meets its eco-efficiency goals is unlikely to invest its increased profits in the development of new and innovative eco-efficiency measures. 53 Consider the following given four choices and identify the odd one out.________________ A. Profligacy B. Extravagance C. Embellishment D. Lavishness 54 One among the four given sets contains one or more words incorrectly spelled. Choose that set.________________ A. Aberration, Beleaguer, Belligerence, Cannoneer B. Cantankerous, Calisthenics, Boysenberry, Apocalypse C. Aficionado, Calisthenics, Cantankerous, Catastrophe D. Callous, Cardiopulmanary, Carnivorus, Camouflage 55 Read the passage below and answer the questions 55-57: My father died twice. The first time was in an ambulance when he was rushed to hospital after suffering a heart attack. His heart had stopped beating for several minutes before the paramedics were able to revive him. Afterwards, he described a vision he had as he lay without a pulse in the speeding ambulance. He saw his brother Joe, who had passed away some years earlier, dressed in flowing white robe sitting on a silver chair on top of a hill. As my father went close, Joe waved and asked him to return. The second time my father died was about three years later. Again it was heart that failed him. This time tough, his brother Joe wasn't there to wave him back to this world. The whole incident in the passage can be described as:________________ A. Superstition B. Reincarnation C. Rebirth D. Illusion 56 Read the passage below and answer the questions 55-57: My father died twice. The first time was in an ambulance when he was rushed to hospital after suffering a heart attack. His heart had stopped beating for several minutes before the paramedics were able to revive him. Afterwards, he described a vision he had as he lay without a pulse in the speeding ambulance. He saw his brother Joe, who had passed away some years earlier, dressed in flowing white robe sitting on a silver chair on top of a hill. As my father went close, Joe waved and asked him to return. The second time my father died was about three years later. Again it was heart that failed him. This time tough, his brother Joe wasn't there to wave him back to this world. What can be true about the father of the author?________________ A. He might be suffering from incurable disease. B. He might be having an artery blockage in heart. C. His brother Joe waived him good bye before putting in ambulance. D. His son was not with him at time of death. 57 Read the passage below and answer the questions 55-57: My father died twice. The first time was in an ambulance when he was rushed to hospital after suffering a heart attack. His heart had stopped beating for several minutes before the paramedics were able to revive him. Afterwards, he described a vision he had as he lay without a pulse in the speeding ambulance. He saw his brother Joe, who had passed away some years earlier, dressed in flowing white robe sitting on a silver chair on top of a hill. As my father went close, Joe waved and asked him to return. The second time my father died was about three years later. Again it was heart that failed him. This time tough, his brother Joe wasn't there to wave him back to this world. Which statement can be true about Joe?________________ A. Joe died of heart attack and after his brother's first death experience. B. Joe was in ambulance with his brother to waive him goodbye last time. C. Joe did not come to say goodbye to his dying brother. D. Joe was present only first time but not second. 58 Fill in the blank(s) with the most suitable option. In the long run, drinking proved fatal both ________ his reputation & health.________________ A. for B. to C. of D. None of these 59 Choose the best option from those given below to replace the underlined portion of the sentence: In the normal course of event, my son will graduate law school with a degree in law and he will join court in three years.________________ A. my son will graduate law school with a degree in law, he will join court in three years. B. my son will have graduated from law school with a degree in law and joined court in three years. C. my son will graduate from law school with degree in law, he will join court in three years. D. my son graduates law college with a degree in law and will join court in three years. 60 Choose the best option from those given below to replace the underlined portion of the sentence: The fact that the terrorists left no pamphlets has laid credence to the apprehension in certain quarters that it may have been orchestrated to discredit the security forces.________________ A. has layed credence to the apprehension B. was laid credence to the apprehension C. had laid credence to the apprehension D. has lent credence to the apprehension


Description:
Cocubes conducts employability test in IIT Kharagpur for final campus placements.
This is the test conducted by CoCubes in 2014.

Quick Facts
Total participants:6,441 students
Highest Score:60.00
National Median:23.00
National Average:22.78
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